Friday, April 09, 2004
Virtue as constitutive of well-being
I really want to embrace the Aristotelean idea of virtue as partially constitutive of well-being (that is, all other things, equal, a virtuous person is better-off than an unvirtuous one), but it's difficult for me to conceive of that claim as anything more than a brute fact. Any suggestions/refutations? I have the intuition that if you found a really bad person, you could help him by feeding him a virtue pill, if you had such a thing, thereby causing him to become a good person. I know that intuition is at least somewhat controversial, though.